Legal and Prosecution – Level 13

Personal Details
Questions 1 to 10
Questions 11 to 20
Questions 11 to 30
Questions 31 to 40
Questions 41 to 50
Questions 51 to 60
Questions 61 to 70

LEGAL AND PROSECUTION – LEVEL 13

NAPTIP’s Official Promotional Exams

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Exam Questions

Once again, all questions carry equal marks. There are a total of 70 questions. You should budget 60 minutes for the entire exam.

The page will automatically end and submit your answers once the time runs out. Use your time wisely.

Questions 1 – 10

Garnishee proceedings are meant to:

A. Challenge jurisdiction

B. Attach debtor’s funds

C. Protect plaintiff’s land

D. Quash criminal trial

The maxim audi alteram partem means:

A. A part of a thing represents the whole of the thing

B. No man should be a judge in his own case

C. Hear the other side

D. Let the buyer beware

State of emergency may be declared under which section of the Constitution?

A. Section 250

B. Section 305

C. Section 36

D. Section 150

Default judgment is given when:

A. Plaintiff abandons case

B. Defendant fails to file defence or appear

C. Judge delays matter

D. Witnesses fail to attend

Citizenship by registration is granted to:

A. Diplomats

B. Women married to Nigerian men

C. Foreigners

D. Political refugees only

Which of these is NOT a recognized privilege under evidence law?

A. Spousal privilege

B. Legal practitioner-client privilege

C. Personal privilege

D. State security privilege

When a no case submission fails:

A. Defendant is convicted

B. Case starts de novo

C. Defence is entered

D. Case is transferred to another court

Which type of evidence does NOT require corroboration by law?

A. Accomplice testimony

B. Confession of co-accused

C. Confession of the accused himself

D. Testimony of child witness

Appeals from Magistrate Court go to:

A. Supreme Court

B. High Court of a State

C. Federal High Court

D. Tribunal

Qualification for President requires minimum age of:

A. 25 years

B. 30 years

C. 40 years (before amendment)

D. 35 years

Questions 11 – 20

What is the full meaning of CEDAW?

a. Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women.

b. Communication Elimination of Discrimination Against Women.

c. Convention of Eligible Discriminated Women.

d. Convention for Discrimination Elimination Against Women.

What are the three investigative approaches used in Human Trafficking cases?

a. Intercept, Interrupt, and Prosecute.

b. Proactive, Reactive, and Disruptive.

c. Collaboration, Workshop, and Symposium.

d. Arrest, Detain, and Jail.

How does striking out differ from dismissal?

A. Same effect

B. Both final

C. Striking out leaves room to refile

D. Striking out bars forever

List three distinctive differences between TIP and SOM.

a. Consent – Exploitation – Transnationality.

b. Adaptability – Source – Transit.

c. Destination – Expectation – Consent.

d. Universality – Nationhood – Amalgamation.

Appeals must be instituted by:

A. Oral notice

B. Judge’s order

C. Filing notice of appeal at trial court registry

D. Party’s letter to appellate court

List four powers of NAPTIP according to TIPPEA 2015.

a. Seize, Arrest, Detain, and Prosecute.

b. Slap, Seize, Arrest, and Drag.

c. Unwind, Collusion, Prosecute, and Export.

d. Drag, Reprimand, Indulge, and Accept.

Person arrested must be brought before court within:

A. 7 days

B. 24/48 hours (depending on presence of court)

C. 30 days

D. At prosecutor’s convenience

Search warrant issued by:

A. Lawyers

B. Magistrate or judge

C. Arresting officer

D. I.G. of Police

According to the NAPTIP Code of Conduct on Anti-Corruption, all of the options below are common corruption problems in public service except one, which one?

a. Administrative Delay.

b. Conflict of Interest.

c. Indebtedness and Difficult Financial Situation.

d. Lateness.

False statements in affidavit amount to:

A. Misconduct

B. Perjury

C. Procedural irregularity

D. Contempt only

Questions 21 – 30

Which demographic in Nigeria is most vulnerable to being trafficked?

a) Elderly individuals and males

b) Women and children and adolescents

c) Working professionals

d) Wealthy individuals

Which of the investigative options falls under the following tactics? • Constant law enforcement raids • Temporary closure of borders • Closure of suspects venues of exploitation like brothels • Regular interception of suspected traffickers and potential. • Revocation of licenses for premises suspected to being used for human trafficking activities.

a. Proactive Option

b. Disruptive Option

c. Reactive Option

d. Surveillance Option.

Which of the following is not the Powers of NAPTIP under the TIPPEA Act 2015?

a. Power to enter into any premises, property or conveyance for the purpose of conducting searches.

b. Power to kill any suspect who attempts to run away from custody.

c. Power to investigate all cases of trafficking under this act .

d. Power to arrest, detain, and prosecute offences.

One of the following is not a personal risk of human trafficking.

a. It results in personal health risks

b. It results in death of victim.

c. It undermines human capital development

d. It violates the human rights of its victim.

The National Action Plan 2022-2026 has 5 thematic areas, which one of these mentioned in the option is not a thematic area?

a) Protection and Assistance

b) Research and Assessment, Data Management and Statistics/ Monitoring and Evaluation

c) Policy and Planning

d) Partnership and Coordination

The following are objectives of the Standard Operational Procedure in handling of cases by NAPTIP officers. Identify the odd one.

a) To provide a checklist for the processing of cases from Investigation to Prosecution;

b) To Provide checks and balances that will ensure timely investigation and filing of cases in court;

c) To provide guidance for Judges in handling trafficking in persons cases;

d) To provide guides for the operation of case teams.

Which of the following is NAPTIP’s operational strategies has with providing immediate and long-term support to victims?

a. Protection

b. Prevention

c. Policy

d. Prosecution.

The following are the four cardinal principles of human rights, except one.

a. Inalienability.

b. Appreciatability.

c. Universality.

d. Indivisibility.

What is the primary international legal framework addressing human trafficking?

a. The Hague Convention

b. The United Nations Convention Against Transnational Organized Crime

c. The Geneva Convention

d. The Rome Statute

Which of the following best captures the systemic impact of human trafficking on national development?

a. Reduction in recurrent government expenditure through migration

b. Facilitation of cross-border trade in unregulated markets

c. Entrenchment of organized crime networks, erosion of human capital, and violation of fundamental rights

d. Expansion of legal migration corridors under bilateral agreements

Questions 31 – 40

Virtual meetings in the Service must comply with:

A. Security of Government Data

B. Freedom of Information Act

C. Private IT regulations

D. Labour laws

An officer hospitalized may initially be granted sick leave for:

A. 1 month

B. 2 months

C. 3 months

D. 6 months

Serious misconduct under the PSR may lead to:

A. Suspension

B. Interdiction

C. Dismissal

D. Promotion

The PSR stipulates that an officer on probation must serve for a period of:

A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 3 years

D. 6 months

Study leave without pay may be granted for:

A. In-service training

B. Courses not in the MDA’s training plan

C. Compulsory exams

D. Sabbatical appointments

Paternity leave is granted for how many working days?

A. 5 working days

B. 7 working days

C. 14 working days

D. 21 working days【Q3 – Computation of Leave Circular】

According to the Public Service Rules (PSR), the compulsory retirement age for public servants is:

A. 60 years or 30 years of service

B. 65 years or 40 years of service

C. 60 years or 35 years of service

D. 55 years or 25 years of service

An officer cannot be appointed if he/she is a member of:

A. A professional association

B. A cooperative society

C. A secret society

D. An alumni group

Which of the following is considered misconduct under the PSR?

A. Prompt attendance to duty

B. Wearing official uniform

C. Hawking merchandise on duty

D. Submitting annual performance reports

In official communication, minutes are written to:

A. Keep records of discussions

B. Approve leave requests

C. Authorize payments

D. Process promotions 【Civil Service Handbook】

Questions 41 – 50

Interdiction means:

A. Temporary suspension with half pay

B. Dismissal from Service

C. Retirement in public interest

D. Transfer to another Ministry

Duty Tour Allowance is payable when:

A. An officer is on official journey

B. An officer is on annual leave

C. An officer is on study leave

D. An officer is promoted

Which body considers petitions and appeals in the Service?

A. Federal Civil Service Commission

B. OHCSF

C. NLC

D. EFCC

Sabbatical leave must be approved by:

A. Permanent Secretary

B. OHCSF

C. Civil Service Commission

D. National Assembly

Hotel accommodation allowance is payable for how many days?

A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 28 days

D. 30 days

An officer on annual leave is entitled to:

A. Full emoluments

B. Half emoluments

C. Leave without pay

D. Allowances only

Acting allowance is payable when:

A. An officer assumes higher duties temporarily

B. An officer goes on leave

C. An officer is transferred

D. An officer is promoted

Before disciplining an officer, the first step is to:

A. Suspend the officer

B. Dismiss the officer

C. Issue a query

D. Report to the EFCC

Misconduct is defined in PSR as:

A. General inefficiency

B. Specific improper behaviour

C. Transfer refusal

D. Medical incapacity

Which of these is NOT a recognized allowance in the PSR?

A. Call Duty Allowance

B. Hazard Allowance

C. Hardship Allowance

D. Overtime Allowance

Questions 51 – 60

Which of the following is classified as misconduct?

A. Punctuality

B. Dress code violation

C. Hard work

D. Training attendance

A parastatal is defined as:

A. Private company

B. Government-owned organization

C. International agency

D. NGO

Who recommends officers for promotion to the post of Permanent Secretary?

A. Head of Service

B. President

C. Minister

D. FCSC alone

The Head of the Civil Service of the Federation is responsible for:

A. Financial Regulations

B. Managing Federal Civil Service

C. Passing laws

D. State public service

Kilometer allowance is granted for:

A. Air travel

B. Road journeys by car

C. Foreign trips

D. Water transport

Who has authority to approve medical check-ups abroad for GL 12–15 officers?

A. Permanent Secretary

B. Head of the Civil Service

C. Civil Service Commission

D. The President

The cut-off mark for promotion examinations in the Federal Civil Service is:

A. 50%

B. 55%

C. 60%

D. 65%

An officer seconded to an international body shall not exceed how many years?

A. 2 years

B. 4 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years

Promotion in the Civil Service is based primarily on:

A. Years of service alone

B. Merit and vacancies

C. Age and qualification

D. Seniority only

During secondment, which organization pays the officer’s salary?

A. Releasing MDA

B. Receiving MDA

C. OHCSF

D. Civil Service Commission

Questions 61 – 70

Which country is Nigeria’s largest trading partner?

A) China

B) United States

C) South Africa

D) India

What was Team Nigeria’s overall outcome at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games?

A. Nigeria won medals primarily in Wrestling and Athletics

B. Nigeria won medals mainly in Swimming and Cycling

C. Nigeria did not win any Olympic medals at Paris 2024

D. Nigeria won medals primarily in Gymnastics and Rowing

In what year was the United Nations established?

a. 1945.

b. 1949.

c. 1901.

d. 1900.

The African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA) aims to:

A. Reduce barriers and increase intra-African trade

B. Replace the United Nations in Africa

C. Abolish the use of foreign currencies in Africa

D. Establish a single African constitution

Which African country successfully mediated the peace agreement that ended the 2023 Sudan conflict?

A. Kenya

B. South Africa

C. Egypt

D. Ethiopia

Which Nigerian Federal Institution had its newly appointed management upturned within days of announcement?

a) National Emergency Management Authority (NEMA)

b) National Commission for Colleges of Education (NCCE)

c) Nigeria Television Authority (NTA)

d) National Board for Technical Education (NBTE)

In 2024, Nigeria officially launched its first national electric vehicle policy. What is the main goal of this policy?

A. To expand oil refining capacity

B. To promote green transportation and reduce carbon emissions

C. To increase customs revenue on imported vehicles

D. To create a regional railway hub in West Africa

President Bola Ahmed Tinubu declared state of emergency in Rivers State on which of these dates?

a. Monday 17th March, 2025

b. Tuesday 18th March, 2025

c. Wednesday 19th March, 2025

d. Thursday 20th March, 2025

In 2024, Nigeria officially launched its first national electric vehicle policy. What is the main goal of this policy?

A. To expand oil refining capacity

B. To promote green transportation and reduce carbon emissions

C. To increase customs revenue on imported vehicles

D. To create a regional railway hub in West Africa

When and where was the organisation of African Unity (OAU) renamed African Union (AU)?

a. 29th May 2002, in South Africa.

b. 1st October 1960, in Ghana.

c. 29th May 1999, in Nigeria.

d. 10th December 2024, in Liberia