Legal and Prosecution – Level 10

Personal Details
Questions 1 to 10
Questions 11 to 20
Questions 11 to 30
Questions 31 to 40
Questions 41 to 50
Questions 51 to 60
Questions 61 to 70

LEGAL AND PROSECUTION – LEVEL 10

NAPTIP’s Official Promotional Exams

You have 60 minutes to fill in your personal information and complete the 70-question exam

The page will automatically redirect to our website homepage after 60 minutes. Use your time wisely.

Please do not refresh the page once you begin the exam on the next page, if you do so, your session will automatically end and you will be disqualified.

Carefully fill out all the information on the Form

First Name

Last Name

Current Position

Mobile Number

State

THE QUESTIONS WILL START ON THE NEXT PAGE.

All questions carry equal marks. There are a total of 70 questions. You should budget 60 minutes for the entire Exam.

The page will automatically end and submit your answers once the time runs out.

Exam Questions

Once again, all questions carry equal marks. There are a total of 70 questions. You should budget 60 minutes for the entire exam.

The page will automatically end and submit your answers once the time runs out. Use your time wisely.

Questions 1 – 10

Which is not a prerogative order?

A. Certiorari

B. Prohibition

C. Mandamus

D. Garnishee

Service of process within jurisdiction is usually:

A. By email only

B. By personal service

C. By proclamation only

D. By publishing in the newspaper

Concurrent jurisdiction means:

A. Two courts cannot hear same matter

B. Two courts share authority over matter

C. Supreme only

D. Tribunal

Under the ACJA, a suspect must be brought before a court within:

A. 72 hours

B. 24 hours (or 48 hours where no court is available)

C. 7 days

D. 14 days

Which of the following is NOT a recognized mode of instituting criminal proceedings?

A. By complaint to a magistrate

B. By charge sheet or information

C. By private prosecutor

D. By affidavit evidence

Burden of proof may shift in criminal cases:

A. Never

B. If the defendant raises a specific defense.

C. Always on plaintiff

D. Only in civil cases

Which law primarily governs criminal procedure in federal courts in Nigeria?

A. Penal Code

B. Administration of Criminal Justice Act (ACJA) 2015

C. Criminal Procedure Code

D. Evidence Act

Supreme Court decision binds:

A. Magistrates only

B. All courts in Nigeria

C. Only Appeal Court

D. States only

Double jeopardy prohibits:

A. Civil cases

B. Trying a person twice for same offence

C. Appeal

D. Bail

Doctrine of covering the field arises in:

A. Customary law

B. Conflict between federal and state law

C. Evidence Act

D. ACJA

Questions 11 – 20

A defective charge may lead to:

A. Conviction

B. Nullity of proceedings

C. Appeal only

D. No effect

List four powers of NAPTIP according to TIPPEA 2015.

a. Seize, Arrest, Detain, and Prosecute.

b. Slap, Seize, Arrest, and Drag.

c. Unwind, Collusion, Prosecute, and Export.

d. Drag, Reprimand, Indulge, and Accept.

Court of Appeal divisions are located:

A. Only in Abuja

B. Across all geopolitical zones

C. Lagos only

D. Enugu only

Fundamental rights enforcement procedure governed by:

A. Police rules

B. Fundamental Rights Enforcement Procedure Rules 2009

C. ACJA

D. Evidence Act

What is the full meaning of CEDAW?

a. Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women.

b. Communication Elimination of Discrimination Against Women.

c. Convention of Eligible Discriminated Women.

d. Convention for Discrimination Elimination Against Women.

According to the NAPTIP Code of Conduct on Anti-Corruption, all of the options below are common corruption problems in public service except one, which one?

a. Administrative Delay.

b. Conflict of Interest.

c. Indebtedness and Difficult Financial Situation.

d. Lateness.

What are the three investigative approaches used in Human Trafficking cases?

a. Intercept, Interrupt, and Prosecute.

b. Proactive, Reactive, and Disruptive.

c. Collaboration, Workshop, and Symposium.

d. Arrest, Detain, and Jail.

List three distinctive differences between TIP and SOM.

a. Consent – Exploitation – Transnationality.

b. Adaptability – Source – Transit.

c. Destination – Expectation – Consent.

d. Universality – Nationhood – Amalgamation.

Drafting charges requires:

A. Narrative style

B. Concise statement of offence & law contravened

C. Quick typing skills

D. Oral tradition

Burden of proof in civil cases:

A. Beyond reasonable doubt

B. Balance of probabilities

C. Suspicion

D. Hearsay

Questions 21 – 30

Which of the following is not the Powers of NAPTIP under the TIPPEA Act 2015?

a. Power to enter into any premises, property or conveyance for the purpose of conducting searches.

b. Power to kill any suspect who attempts to run away from custody.

c. Power to investigate all cases of trafficking under this act .

d. Power to arrest, detain, and prosecute offences.

Which of the following is NAPTIP’s operational strategies has with providing immediate and long-term support to victims?

a. Protection

b. Prevention

c. Policy

d. Prosecution.

One of the following is not a personal risk of human trafficking.

a. It results in personal health risks

b. It results in death of victim.

c. It undermines human capital development

d. It violates the human rights of its victim.

Which demographic in Nigeria is most vulnerable to being trafficked?

a) Elderly individuals and males

b) Women and children and adolescents

c) Working professionals

d) Wealthy individuals

The following are objectives of the Standard Operational Procedure in handling of cases by NAPTIP officers. Identify the odd one.

a) To provide a checklist for the processing of cases from Investigation to Prosecution;

b) To Provide checks and balances that will ensure timely investigation and filing of cases in court;

c) To provide guidance for Judges in handling trafficking in persons cases;

d) To provide guides for the operation of case teams.

What is the primary international legal framework addressing human trafficking?

a. The Hague Convention

b. The United Nations Convention Against Transnational Organized Crime

c. The Geneva Convention

d. The Rome Statute

Which of the investigative options falls under the following tactics? • Constant law enforcement raids • Temporary closure of borders • Closure of suspects venues of exploitation like brothels • Regular interception of suspected traffickers and potential. • Revocation of licenses for premises suspected to being used for human trafficking activities.

a. Proactive Option

b. Disruptive Option

c. Reactive Option

d. Surveillance Option.

The National Action Plan 2022-2026 has 5 thematic areas, which one of these mentioned in the option is not a thematic area?

a) Protection and Assistance

b) Research and Assessment, Data Management and Statistics/ Monitoring and Evaluation

c) Policy and Planning

d) Partnership and Coordination

Which of the following best captures the systemic impact of human trafficking on national development?

a. Reduction in recurrent government expenditure through migration

b. Facilitation of cross-border trade in unregulated markets

c. Entrenchment of organized crime networks, erosion of human capital, and violation of fundamental rights

d. Expansion of legal migration corridors under bilateral agreements

The following are the four cardinal principles of human rights, except one.

a. Inalienability.

b. Appreciatability.

c. Universality.

d. Indivisibility.

Questions 31 – 40

Paternity leave is granted for how many working days?

A. 5 working days

B. 7 working days

C. 14 working days

D. 21 working days【Q3 – Computation of Leave Circular】

An officer cannot be appointed if he/she is a member of:

A. A professional association

B. A cooperative society

C. A secret society

D. An alumni group

Serious misconduct under the PSR may lead to:

A. Suspension

B. Interdiction

C. Dismissal

D. Promotion

The PSR stipulates that an officer on probation must serve for a period of:

A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 3 years

D. 6 months

According to the Public Service Rules (PSR), the compulsory retirement age for public servants is:

A. 60 years or 30 years of service

B. 65 years or 40 years of service

C. 60 years or 35 years of service

D. 55 years or 25 years of service

Which of the following is considered misconduct under the PSR?

A. Prompt attendance to duty

B. Wearing official uniform

C. Hawking merchandise on duty

D. Submitting annual performance reports

In official communication, minutes are written to:

A. Keep records of discussions

B. Approve leave requests

C. Authorize payments

D. Process promotions 【Civil Service Handbook】

An officer hospitalized may initially be granted sick leave for:

A. 1 month

B. 2 months

C. 3 months

D. 6 months

Virtual meetings in the Service must comply with:

A. Security of Government Data

B. Freedom of Information Act

C. Private IT regulations

D. Labour laws

Study leave without pay may be granted for:

A. In-service training

B. Courses not in the MDA’s training plan

C. Compulsory exams

D. Sabbatical appointments

Questions 41 – 50

Before disciplining an officer, the first step is to:

A. Suspend the officer

B. Dismiss the officer

C. Issue a query

D. Report to the EFCC

Which of these is NOT a recognized allowance in the PSR?

A. Call Duty Allowance

B. Hazard Allowance

C. Hardship Allowance

D. Overtime Allowance

An officer on annual leave is entitled to:

A. Full emoluments

B. Half emoluments

C. Leave without pay

D. Allowances only

Hotel accommodation allowance is payable for how many days?

A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 28 days

D. 30 days

Acting allowance is payable when:

A. An officer assumes higher duties temporarily

B. An officer goes on leave

C. An officer is transferred

D. An officer is promoted

Interdiction means:

A. Temporary suspension with half pay

B. Dismissal from Service

C. Retirement in public interest

D. Transfer to another Ministry

Misconduct is defined in PSR as:

A. General inefficiency

B. Specific improper behaviour

C. Transfer refusal

D. Medical incapacity

Duty Tour Allowance is payable when:

A. An officer is on official journey

B. An officer is on annual leave

C. An officer is on study leave

D. An officer is promoted

Sabbatical leave must be approved by:

A. Permanent Secretary

B. OHCSF

C. Civil Service Commission

D. National Assembly

Which body considers petitions and appeals in the Service?

A. Federal Civil Service Commission

B. OHCSF

C. NLC

D. EFCC

Questions 51 – 60

Who has authority to approve medical check-ups abroad for GL 12–15 officers?

A. Permanent Secretary

B. Head of the Civil Service

C. Civil Service Commission

D. The President

A parastatal is defined as:

A. Private company

B. Government-owned organization

C. International agency

D. NGO

The cut-off mark for promotion examinations in the Federal Civil Service is:

A. 50%

B. 55%

C. 60%

D. 65%

During secondment, which organization pays the officer’s salary?

A. Releasing MDA

B. Receiving MDA

C. OHCSF

D. Civil Service Commission

Who recommends officers for promotion to the post of Permanent Secretary?

A. Head of Service

B. President

C. Minister

D. FCSC alone

Which of the following is classified as misconduct?

A. Punctuality

B. Dress code violation

C. Hard work

D. Training attendance

An officer seconded to an international body shall not exceed how many years?

A. 2 years

B. 4 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years

Kilometer allowance is granted for:

A. Air travel

B. Road journeys by car

C. Foreign trips

D. Water transport

The Head of the Civil Service of the Federation is responsible for:

A. Financial Regulations

B. Managing Federal Civil Service

C. Passing laws

D. State public service

Promotion in the Civil Service is based primarily on:

A. Years of service alone

B. Merit and vacancies

C. Age and qualification

D. Seniority only

Questions 61 – 70

Which country is Nigeria’s largest trading partner?

A) China

B) United States

C) South Africa

D) India

In what year was the United Nations established?

a. 1945.

b. 1949.

c. 1901.

d. 1900.

In 2024, Nigeria officially launched its first national electric vehicle policy. What is the main goal of this policy?

A. To expand oil refining capacity

B. To promote green transportation and reduce carbon emissions

C. To increase customs revenue on imported vehicles

D. To create a regional railway hub in West Africa

President Bola Ahmed Tinubu declared state of emergency in Rivers State on which of these dates?

a. Monday 17th March, 2025

b. Tuesday 18th March, 2025

c. Wednesday 19th March, 2025

d. Thursday 20th March, 2025

Which Nigerian Federal Institution had its newly appointed management upturned within days of announcement?

a) National Emergency Management Authority (NEMA)

b) National Commission for Colleges of Education (NCCE)

c) Nigeria Television Authority (NTA)

d) National Board for Technical Education (NBTE)

Which African country successfully mediated the peace agreement that ended the 2023 Sudan conflict?

A. Kenya

B. South Africa

C. Egypt

D. Ethiopia

What was Team Nigeria’s overall outcome at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games?

A. Nigeria won medals primarily in Wrestling and Athletics

B. Nigeria won medals mainly in Swimming and Cycling

C. Nigeria did not win any Olympic medals at Paris 2024

D. Nigeria won medals primarily in Gymnastics and Rowing

The African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA) aims to:

A. Reduce barriers and increase intra-African trade

B. Replace the United Nations in Africa

C. Abolish the use of foreign currencies in Africa

D. Establish a single African constitution

In 2024, Nigeria officially launched its first national electric vehicle policy. What is the main goal of this policy?

A. To expand oil refining capacity

B. To promote green transportation and reduce carbon emissions

C. To increase customs revenue on imported vehicles

D. To create a regional railway hub in West Africa

When and where was the organisation of African Unity (OAU) renamed African Union (AU)?

a. 29th May 2002, in South Africa.

b. 1st October 1960, in Ghana.

c. 29th May 1999, in Nigeria.

d. 10th December 2024, in Liberia